The conundrum set out this month in our e-bulletin, Future Perfect?, reads as follows....what do you think?
We have been considering whether works required pursuant to a condition on a planning permission (but not forming part of the application), require a further planning consent to be granted. We have seen a number of cases which suggests that they don't and that the condition is effectively an implied grant of planning consent for those works (see Irlam Brick Co for example). However, there does not seem to be any statutory basis for this stance. Have you ever come across it in practice or been required to obtain a separate consent for such works?
