Each month in our publication 'Future Perfect?' we set out an interesting conundrum and invite readers' comments on it. This month's, written by David and Jennifer, reads as follows.....
Is the permission implemented or not?
Once upon a time we knew if a planning permission had been implemented because we checked to see if there was a trench for the foundations, or a road laid out. Then we got the Whitley case which said that the operations in breach of condition could not implement the permission. That has caused a lot of problems and much law has been made since then in finding exceptions (or more properly clarifying the law), most recently in Prokopp and Hart Aggregates.
What happens if the unlawful operations which purported to implement the consent are now immune (and therefore lawful) because they are over four years old and if the landowner and planning authority have entered into a section 106 agreement for a new permission in which it is stated that the old permission has been implemented and no objection will be made to its revocation (as a new similar permission is being granted)? Those were the facts in the recent case of Rastrum. The court held (following Prokopp) that the operations in breach of condition, because they had become immune and therefore now lawful, had implemented the permission. The court also, though with some caution and emphasising that this is a rare result, held that it was possible that the statements in the section 106 agreement had created a legitimate expectation that the planning authority would not refuse an application for a certificate of lawfulness of proposed use or development for the remaining development under the permission.
So what do we do?
1. If you are the planning authority:
a) do you enforce against every operation which breaches a condition and which purports to implement the development? And if that's your policy, how do you police developments adequately; and
b) do you make statements in section 106 agreements reciting whether a permission has been implemented?
2. Whitley is a Court of Appeal decision, and none of the cases which follow it are higher than the Court of Appeal. Should we take a suitable case to the House of Lords at the earliest opportunity and invite their Lordships to overrule Whitley?